By I. Campa. Inter American University of Puerto Rico.
When intercostal neurol- mode (M-mode) ultrasound provides a sensitive and simple ysis is carried out close to the proximal portion of the rib purchase celexa 20 mg fast delivery, technique for detecting even the smallest pneumothoraces the contrast will often extend to the paravertebral space and (see Fig discount celexa 40mg overnight delivery. Treatment of most pneumothoraces extend through the intervertebral foramen to the lateral epi- should be conservative buy discount celexa 40mg on-line, with observation and administra- dural space cheap celexa 20 mg online. Needle extension of the contrast into the epidural space is unlikely aspiration or chest tube drainage is rarely necessary and to cause adverse effects and may well improve the results of should be reserved only for patients with symptomatic neurolysis. Worsening of pain can arise during intercostal neuroly- sis and is likely the result of incomplete neurolysis of the Complications treated intercostal nerve. Such patients typically report Because of the close proximity of vascular structures to worsened pain in the distribution of the treated intercostal the intercostal nerves, there is a signiﬁcant risk of direct nerve and may develop signs and symptoms of neuropathic 204 Atlas of Image-Guided Intervention in Pain Medicine pain, including burning or lancinating pain and allodynia in root for intercostal neurolysis: a case report. Phenol neurolysis for at least one case report of spinal cord injury following inter- severe chronic nonmalignant pain: is the old also obsolete? Intrathecal infusion of opioid, opioid and adjuvant analgesic combinations, or ziconotide may be used in selected patients with persistent, cancer-related pain unresponsive to more conservative treatments. Shared decision making regarding intrathecal infusion should include a speciﬁc discussion of potential complications. Neuraxial opioid trials should be performed before considering permanent implantation of intrathecal drug delivery systems. Intrathecal infusion of opioid, opioid and adjuvant analgesic combinations, or ziconotide may be used in selected patients with persistent, noncancer pain unresponsive to more conservative treatments. Shared decision making regarding intrathecal infusion should include a speciﬁc discussion of potential complications. Neuraxial opioid trials should be performed before considering permanent implantation of intrathecal drug delivery systems. The use of intrathecal morphine has been compared on Chronic Pain Management published a 2010 Prac- with maximum medical therapy in the treatment of patients tice Guideline, offering the following recommendations: with advanced cancer and shown to provide comparable pain “Ziconotide infusion may be used in the treatment of a relief with signiﬁcantly fewer opioid-related adverse effects, select subset of patients with refractory chronic pain. Intrathecal ziconotide has “Intrathecal opioid injection or infusion may be used for been compared with placebo in the treatment of patients patients with neuropathic pain. Shared decision making with advanced illness and shown to provide marginally regarding intrathecal opioid injection or infusion should superior pain reduction with almost universal appearance include a speciﬁc discussion of potential complications. The use of ering permanent implantation of intrathecal drug delivery implanted drug delivery systems carries signiﬁcant risk, systems. In addition, recent popu- Two recent guidelines were prepared by a multidisci- lation studies point to an increased risk of death in those plinary panel of experts in the use of intrathecal drug deliv- receiving intrathecal infusions; errors in programming and ery; one of the guidelines reviews the evidence regarding the misplacement of the drug into the subcutaneous pocket use of intrathecal drug delivery for patients with cancer pain during reﬁll have been proposed as possible causative fac- (Deer, 2011) and the other for patients with noncancer pain tors. Consensus guidelines for the selection and implantation of patients with noncancer pain for intrathecal drug delivery. Although determined, mark the proposed skin incision with a perma- it is challenging to ascertain optimal timing for the initia- nent marker while the patient is in the sitting position. To optimize difﬁcult to determine once the patient is lying on his or her clinical practice in the absence of evidence-based guidance or side. Performing the initial spinal catheter placement under Intrathecal drug delivery is an invasive and expensive general anesthesia carries concerns about neural injury that treatment modality that carries signiﬁcant risk. The avail- are similar to performing any neuraxial technique under able evidence for long-term efﬁcacy is modest and the general anesthesia. The avail- The patient is positioned on a radiolucent table in the able expert opinion from different consensus groups offers lateral decubitus position with the patient’s side for the imprecise guidance, highlighting the empiric nature of pump pocket nondependent (see Fig. The ﬁnal recommendations put forth in are extended at the shoulders and secured in position so the table above represents a composite of the available rec- they are well away from the surgical field. Care must be taken to ensure that the x-ray Before the procedure, discuss with the patient the location view is not rotated by observing that the spinous pro- of the pocket for the intrathecal pump. Most devices are cesses are in the midline, halfway between the vertebral large, and the only region suitable for placement is the left pedicles (Fig. The L3/L4, L4/L5, or L5/S1 interspace is identiﬁed using A 5- to 8-cm incision parallel to the axis of the spine is ﬂuoroscopy. The spinal needle supplied by the intrathecal extended from just cephalad to just caudad to the needle, device manufacturer must be used to ensure that the cath- extending directly through the needle’s skin entry point eter will advance through the needle without damage. The subcutaneous tissues are divided using needle is advanced using a paramedian approach starting blunt dissection until the lumbar paraspinous fascia is vis- 1 to 1. A purse-string suture to the superior margin of the lamina that forms the inferior is created within the fascia surrounding the needle shaft border of the interspace you plan to enter (see Fig. Using ﬂuoro- needle and stylette are removed simultaneously, using care scopic guidance, the spinal catheter is advanced through not to dislodge the spinal catheter (Fig. The ﬁnal catheter catheter and gentle aspiration used to ensure the catheter position can vary and there is no ﬁrm connection between remains within the thecal sac. The needle is then withdrawn slightly (∼1 to 2cm) a speciﬁc anchoring device supplied by the manufacturer but left in place around the catheter within the subcutane- (Fig. A 10- to 12-cm transverse 210 Atlas of Image-Guided Intervention in Pain Medicine A L3 Needle tip in midline Inferior at L4/L5 L4 margin of lamina of L4 Superior Spinous margin of process lamina of L5 of L5 Iliac crests B C Figure 15-2. B: Initial spinal needle placement via the L4/L5 interspace using a left parame- dian approach. Chapter 15 Implantable Spinal Drug Delivery System Placement 211 Tip of intrathecal L2 catheter L3 L4 L5 Figure 15-3. In many patients, the blunt dis- subcutaneous pocket is created using blunt dissection section can be accomplished using gentle but ﬁrm pressure (Fig. If the pocket is placed cephalad to the inci- small pair of surgical scissors to perform the blunt dissec- sion, the weight of the device on the suture line is likely to tion using repeated opening (not closing or cutting) motions Tip of intrathecal L2 catheter L3 L4 L5 Figure 15-4. Sagittal (A) and axial (B) computed tomography of the thorax in a patient with an intra- thecal drug delivery system that has been in place for more than 10 years and providing ongoing pain relief for a patient with chronic axial low back pain. The catheter tip can be seen in the left anterolateral aspect of the thecal sac at the T6/T7 level. Sagittal (C) and axial (D) computed tomography of the thorax in a patient with an intrathecal drug delivery system placed and providing pain relief for a patient with chest wall pain associated with metastatic lung cancer. The catheter tip can be seen in the midline in the posterior aspect of the thecal sac at the T9/T10 level. Reference line on the sagittal images corresponds with the level of the axial images shown. Note that both of the imaging studies shown here were obtained for diagnostic purposes related to each patient’s primary illness. They are shown here to demonstrate the variation in intrathecal catheter position that is commonly seen in practice. After conﬁrming the ﬁnal position of the catheter tip, the spi- A purse-string suture is placed around the base of the needle nal needle is withdrawn about 1 cm to lie in the subcutaneous within the paravertebral fascia. A cephalad-caudad incision is made through the skin and sub- cutaneous tissues; the incision extends above and below the needle entry point. After creating the pocket, the pump is placed in the pocket to ensure the pocket is large enough. The pump should ﬁt completely within the pocket without any part of the device extending beneath the incision. There should be no tension on the sutures during closure of the incision or the wound is likely to dehisce. After pocket creation is completed, a tunneling device is extended within the subcutaneous tissues between the paraspinous incision and the pocket (Fig. The catheter is then advanced through the tunnel (most tun- neling devices place a hollow plastic sleeve in the subcuta- neous tissue through which the catheter can be advanced from the patient’s back to the pump pocket). The catheter is then trimmed to a length that allows for a small loop of catheter to remain deep to the pump and attach to the pump. This loop allows for patient movement without placing tension on the distal catheter and causing it to be pulled from the thecal sac. Two or more sutures should be placed through the suture The catheter is secured to the paravertebral fascia using an loops or mesh enclosure surrounding the pump and used anchoring device supplied by the manufacturer. Newer anchors that secure the catheter directly without the need for the circumferential retaining sutures prevent the pump from rotating or ﬂip- sutures around the anchor and catheter have been developed. A tunneling device provided by the manufacturer is used to A transverse incision is created in the abdominal wall midway position the catheter within the subcutaneous tissue between between the umbilicus and the anterior axillary line, and a the paravertebral incision and the abdominal pump pocket. In pocket of sufﬁcient size is made to accommodate the pump large patients, the tunneling may require two segments: the using blunt dissection. The blunt dissection can be accom- ﬁrst segment between the paravertebral incision and a small plished using the ﬁngertips or by using surgical scissors and a transverse incision in the mid-axillary line and a second seg- repeated spreading (rather than cutting) motion. Chapter 15 Implantable Spinal Drug Delivery System Placement 215 Permanent Epidural Catheter Placement For placement of a permanent epidural catheter, patient positioning and use of ﬂuoroscopy are similar to those described for intrathecal catheter placement. The interspace of entry will vary with the dermatomes that are to be cov- ered, particularly if local anesthetic solution is to be used. A typical loss-of-resistance technique is used to identify the epidural space, and a silastic catheter is threaded into the epidural space.
Investigating possible subgroups of A always require additional investigation (Answer E) order celexa online. Acquired B phenotype (Answer D) is identifed by a type A patient having an additional reaction with anti-B antisera order celexa from india. In the acquired B phenotype buy 20 mg celexa otc, the terminal sugar buy celexa visa, N-acetylgalactosamine, is deacetylated, converting the sugar to galactosamine. This is similar enough to the terminal sugar of the B antigen, galactose, to react with some anti-B. The patient in this example does not have any reactivity with anti-B and does not ft the serological profle for a patient with an acquired B phenotype. In fact, many healthy individuals have cold autoantibodies reactive at room temperature (22–25°C) or below. Finally, while autoanti-M (Answer E) has been reported, it is very rare and not known to cause immune hemolytic anemia. Which of the following selected red cells is most often used to differentiate an autoanti-I from an autoanti-i? I-negative adults, also known as adult i, are very rare with a frequency reported to be 0. Answer: B—Cord cells have i antigen and are for the most part considered I-negative because the branching enzyme (β 1-6 N-acetyl-glucosaminyltransferase) is just becoming active at birth. Autoani-I will be non-reactive when tested with cord cells because they lack I antigen. While I-negative (Answer E) cells would be helpful, they are very rare and would not be available for routine use. Patient cells and screening cells (Answers A and D) will be I positive and unhelpful in this case (Table 6. Anti-P1 Concept: Over the years there has been much confusion over the P1Pk and Globoside blood group systems. The most commonly seen antibody is anti-P1, since approximately 20% of Caucasians lack the P1 antigen. Answer: E—Anti-P1 is most often detected in routine pretransfusion testing given the frequency of being P1 negative is the most common of this group. Anti-P1 is an IgM antibody and similar to antibodies to other carbohydrate antigens, it can be formed with no prior exposure to red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy. It is clinically insignifcant, since it is an IgM antibody reactive at colder temperatures, but nonreactive at body temperature. Anti-P1 can be challenging to identify because antigen expression varies between individuals. Blood Group AntiGens And AntiBodies Manufacturers do not indicate on the antigen profle whether there is strong or weak expression of the antigen so results of testing can be confusing on frst review. Panel cell 3 is P1 positive and strongly reactive (3+) at immediate spin and cells 4 and 5 are only weakly reactive (1+). In order to enhance the reactivity of the antibody and to increase confdence in identifcation, the panel can be incubated at room temperature and 18°C. After incubation, all P1+ red cells are positive and P1− red cells are negative, consistent with identifcation of anti-P1 (Table 6. Occasionally the manufacturer will indicate on the antigen profle unusual P1 antigen expression, as indicated by w for weak and s for strong (Table 6. These antibodies are IgG, reactive at 37°C and associated with acute hemolytic transfusion reactions and spontaneous abortions. If an individual’s phenotype is Le(a+b−), which of the following genes do they possess? Le, SeSe Concept: Lewis blood group antigens are unique because they are produced by epithelial cells released into plasma and are adsorbed onto the red blood cell membrane versus most other antigens that are formed as part of the red cell membrane. When Le is found in serological typing the individual is a non secretor, sese b indicating no terminal fucose was added to the Type I chain changing the antigenic structure to Le. The R/r terminology arose from the theory proposed by Weiner that one gene was responsible for producing an agglutinogen containing a series of at least three blood factors. Fisher and Race postulated that the antigens of the system were produced by three closely linked sets of alleles, D/d, C/c, and E/e. These two genes are 97% homologous, which lend to the extremely polymorphic nature of the system. Weiner’s theory of inheriting one gene (Answer A) and Fisher- Race’s theory of inheriting three separate but closely linked genes (Answer B) were both incorrect. Only two genes (Answer C) with little genetic variation would not explain all the antigens in the Rh blood group system. If a D positive patient has anti-c in his serum, which of the following units of red cells will be compatible with this patient? In this case, the patient has anti-c, therefore, he must receive c negative red blood cells. Blood Group AntiGens And AntiBodies 127 which predicted genotype will result in red blood cells that lack the c antigen. If a person is D positive, using Weiner nomenclature, his predicted genotype is designated with a capital R. This phenotype does not have the c antigen and can therefore, be transfused to a patient with anti-c. Finally, rr (dce/dce) (Answer E) is homozygous for c and should not be transfused (Table 6. Which of the following is the most common predicted Rh genotype in African American patients? Blood Group AntiGens And AntiBodies Answer: D—The table above demonstrates the prevalence of the more common predicted Rh genotypes in those of African ancestry. Antigen typing and determining possible and most probable predicted genotypes can allow transfusion medicine specialists to make assumptions about a patient’s true genotype. However, molecular techniques should be used to accurately determine this information. The other choices (Answers A, B, C, and E) are incorrect based on the table above. Anti-G should be suspected whenever a pattern of anti-D and anti-C is detected in red cell antibody identifcation panel testing. Rh antibodies are clinically signifcant and anti-D and anti-C/suspected anti-G should be further investigated, especially in the prenatal setting. Anti-G can be verifed when tested with a rare D-C-G+ cell or by double adsorption/elution techniques. Verifcation of the presence of anti-D/anti-C or anti-D/anti-C and anti-G is not generally pursued outside of the obstetric population since the provision of D-C- antigen negative units would be appropriate for a safe transfusion. Anti-D (Answer D) alone would not explain the positive reaction with panel cells no. The negativity of panel cell six rules out a combination of E and D (Answer B) and the negativity of panel cells seven and eight rules out Anti-C alone (Answer A). This individual may produce the a a corresponding antibody to the high incidence En antigen, anti-En. The U-negative phenotype is predominantly found in individuals of African ancestry. These individuals may produce the corresponding antibody to a high incidence antigen; anti-U. The frequency of the common antigens in this system, M, N, S, s, U, is useful to know for provision of a safe transfusion. Alternately, anti-En has been documented in the literature to be a clinically signifcant antibody. Provision of En(a−) or U− red cells is challenging, a since 99%–100% of the population is En(a+) and U+. Answer: D—The s antigen is present in 89% of the population; therefore, only 11% of the population would be compatible with the patient who has anti-s. Matching for the s antigen may be relatively diffcult (10% seronegative in the general population). If rare antisera is unavailable to confrm red cell a units as Kp(a−), what is the best choice for provision of blood for the patient with anti-Kp? Call the rare donor program a a Concept: Anti-Kp is an antibody to a low prevalence antigen.
The device is also seen on frontal (arrow in Panel C ) and lateral (arrow in Panel D) conventional chest radiographs buy generic celexa 40 mg. Since the left atrial appendage is a major source of thrombus formation due to circulatory stasis purchase generic celexa on line, the use of an occluder device here can dramatically reduce the risk of thromboembolic stroke order celexa 40mg without prescription. In this particular patient buy celexa 40 mg with visa, anticoagulation therapy could be stopped after device placement. However, this approach is currently controversial, as some investigators argue that there are also other potential sources of emboli, including the atrial septum, left-sided valves, and the aorta. Occurring especially in large atria and in patients with atrial ﬁbrillation, slow blood ﬂow can range from moderate to very pronounced (asteriskinPanel A). In this patient, absence of a thrombus was conﬁrmed by delayed-phase imaging (asterisk in Panel B). Therefore, diagnosis of a left atrial appendage thrombus should only be retained after a ﬁlling defect has been conﬁrmed on delayed-phase imaging or with transesophageal ultrasound. In the second patient, the left atrial appendage is completely ﬁlled with a hypodense mass on arterial-phase imaging (asterisk in Panel C ), which persists on delayed-phase imaging (asterisk in Panel D) with only discrete further opaciﬁcation surrounding the thrombus. The normal three-dimensional anatomy of the pulmonary veins is illustrated, which includes the right superior (green ), right inferior (purple), left superior (red), and left inferior (blue ) pulmo- nary veins. The right superior pulmonary vein drains the right upper and middle lobe, with the left superior pulmonary vein draining the left upper lobe and lingula. The right and left inferior pulmonary veins drain the lower lobes of their respective lungs. A por- tion of the left atrial appendage (yellow) can be seen anterior to the left pulmonary veins B atrium and its pulmonary veins, providing an anatomic overview unmatched by ultrasound (Fig. An accessory vein (purple) is present in both cases, cen- tered on the posterior atrial wall in Panel A and between the upper and lower left pulmonary veins in Panel B. Furthermore, they have veins and lef atrium, specifcally mentioning important often small ostia (as especially illustrated inPanel B), making them anatomic variations that can alter the procedural strat- more at risk for complications such as stenoses. Typically, a Panel A there is a congenital conﬂuence of the left superior (red ) total of four pulmonary veins with four independent and inferior pulmonary vein (blue) in one large common trunk ostia can be distinguished on both sides of the lef atrium (orange in Panel A). Tey are appropriately named right superior, segment, making this a preferred target for electrical isolation. This right inferior, lef superior and lef inferior pulmonary common variant occurs in 12–25 % of the population, mostly on vein. The most common anatomic variations are the the left side presence of common (or conjoined) veins and accessory or supernumerary pulmonary veins (Fig. Other T e presence of large ostia, as sometimes seen in con- more rare variants must also be reported as they can joined pulmonary veins, must be reported as they may 21 infuence catheter passage (Fig. A patent fora- sible secondary to malincorporation of the embryonic common men ovale is the result of failed fusion between the septum pri- pulmonary vein into the left atrium. In this typical case, the septum primum (arrows ) is it increases procedural complexity, a fenestrated membrane will fused to the inferior rim of the fossa ovalis (I) and extends superi- generally not preclude a radiofrequency ablation intervention, as orly as a ﬂap. A patent foramen ovale is a common ﬁnding in the the electrophysiologist will try to use the fenestrations for passage general population, with prevalence estimates in autopsy studies of the catheter between the atrial chambers ranging from 25 to 35 %. Small left-to-right shunts are commonly seen, where the passage of blood is always oblique between the partially overlapping ostium primum and secundum. The presence of a pat- accurate and comparable ostial measurements than ent foramen ovale facilitates transseptal passage of the catheter transesophageal echocardiography, which ofen under- during radiofrequency ablation procedures. As positioning of the radiofrequency ablation catheter in the lef atrium is achieved through puncture of the to-right shunt is common and ofen of little clinical sig- interatrial septum from the right atrium, evaluation of nifcance. In about 25–35 % of patients, when lef atrial pressure rises as in arterial hypertension transseptal passage might be facilitated by the presence of for instance. Contrary to a patent foramen ovale, the ﬂow is perpendicular to the axis of the interatrial septum through a septal defect without an overlapping ﬂap. Atrial septal defects constitute 10 % of all congenital heart diseases, with an ostium secundum defect being the most common type, accounting for 75 % of all cases. In comparison with a patent foramen ovale, an atrial septal defect is a more rare but often clinically more relevant congenital defect. Small defects are usually asymptomatic, especially in the ﬁrst three decades of life, and often do not require treatment. However, large shunts can initially cause volume and eventually pressure overload of the right heart with atrial and ventricular dilatation (as illustrated in this case), leading to pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular failure, and potentially right-to-left shunting. As a consequence, over 70 % of indi- viduals with an atrial septal defect become symptomatic in the ﬁfth decade, or even earlier when the shunt is large. Depending on the characteristics of the atrial septal defect, treatment is endovascular or surgical. It can occur in isolation, but is ofen associ- shunt tends to be larger in many cases. L e f atrial diverticula are common anatomic variants An atrial septal aneurysm is occasionally encoun- (Fig. While their presence is in general of little tered as a septal outpouching of variable depth and clinical signifcance, they constitute potential sites of length, mostly from the lef into the right atrium catheter entrapment. A large communication between the left and right atrium is seen (arrow in Panels A and B), just posterior to the annulus of the mitral valve (asterisk in Panel A). In contrast to an ostium secundum atrial septal defect, an ostium primum defect is often large and located in the most anterior and inferior part of the interatrial septum, immediately adjacent to the atrioventricular valves. Representing 10 % of atrial septal defects, its name is derived from the abnormal fusion between the embryologic sinus venosus and the atrium. The right heart is enlarged, secondary to a large left-to-right shunt in this case of anomalous pulmonary venous return. However, follow-up echocardiography in the immediate postoperative period still revealed a substantial shunt (not shown), without being able to determine its origin. Small aneurysms are of no clinical signiﬁcance, but thrombus formation in large aneurysms has been reported and is associated with an increased stroke risk. Nevertheless, atrial septal aneurysms pose no formal contraindication to a radiofrequency ablation procedure regardless of their size, as transseptal puncture of this aneurysm is easily achieved without a signiﬁcantly increased complication risk. Panel A shows an Amplatzer septal closure device in a 57-year-old man after previous patent foramen ovale correction (arrow in Panel A). The second case illustrates a prominent lipomatous hypertrophic septum in a young woman (asterisk in Panel B), an entity frequently associated with atrial arrhythmias and atherosclerotic coronary artery disease. The presence of a septal closure device usually does not pose any procedural problems, as a radiofrequency ablation catheter can easily pass through this device without increased com- plication risk. In this speciﬁc case (Panel B), an unsuccessful attempt at transseptal puncture was made 350 Chapter 21 ● Electrophysiology Interventions A ⊡ Fig. Atrial diverticula along the left (arrow in Panel A) and right atrial wall (arrow in Panel B) are seen. However, thrombus formation in large diverticula, although rare, has been described. The presence and location of diverticula must be reported, as they constitute potential sites of catheter entrapment. Diverticula could give rise to thrombus formation or perforation, since their walls are much thinner than that of the adjacent nor- mal atrium. Nevertheless, several complications can occur a high-degree stenosis or even occlusion (Fig. We recommend to perform a With further development of ablation catheters and routine follow-up study within 3–12 months to look techniques (including cryoablation) and increas- for postprocedural complications, or when clinically ing experience of interventional electrophysiologists, indicated. Treatment remains, ablation site is one of the most common complications however, difcult and not well defned. Early stenosis is caused loon dilatation and stent placement have been reported, by tissue swelling that may regress or progress over time with restenosis nevertheless occurring in up to 50 % to fbrosis and contraction of the venous wall. A repeat examination performed after radiofre- quency ablation because the patient complained of progressive shortness of breath revealed a 50–70 % stenosis at the ablation site (arrow in Panel B). Since only one vein acquired a stenosis, hemodynamic repercussions were less severe and could be stabi- lized with medication, with a subsequently improved clinical condition 352 Chapter 21 ● Electrophysiology Interventions A B C ⊡ Fig. A total of three pulmonary vein stenoses are seen: two subocclusive stenoses in the upper right (arrow in Panel A) and lower left (arrow in Panel B) pulmonary vein and a more moderate stenosis in the lower right pulmonary vein (arrow in Panel C). While a moderate stenosis in a single pulmonary vein will often have little to no clinical signiﬁcance, the hemody- namic repercussions increase with the number of aﬀected veins and the degree of stenosis. In this patient, retro-obstructively increased venous pressure caused right heart enlargement and subsequent right heart failure. Direct treatment of pulmonary vein stenoses is very often disappointing or even impossible. In some cases, progressive deterioration of right heart function can eventually lead to heart transplantation as the only possible therapeutic intervention 21 353 21 21.
Year Study Began: 1993 Year Study Published: 1997 Study Location: 413 hospitals in china order 40 mg celexa mastercard. Who Was Studied: Patients with suspected ischemic stroke who presented within 48 hours of symptom onset discount celexa line. Who Was Excluded: Patients with no clear indications for or contraindica- tions to aspirin as determined by the responsible physicians discount 10 mg celexa. Adults with an Acute Ischemic Stroke within 48 Hours a er Symptom Onset Randomized Aspirin 160 mg/day for 4 weeks atching Placebo for 4 weeks Figure 43 generic 10 mg celexa otc. Study Intervention: Patients with acute ischemic stroke (symptom onset within 48 hours) were allocated to receive aspirin 160 mg/day for 4 weeks or matching placebo per day for 4 weeks. Endpoints: Primary outcomes: all-cause mortality during the scheduled treat- ment period and death or dependent outcome at discharge. A cT scan was only required for comatose patients (87% did receive a scan prior to randomization and nearly all had a cT scan during their hospital stay). It was lef to the responsible physician to determine if aspirin was safe for each patient, and the responsible physician needed to be uncertain regarding the potential beneft of aspirin. It is unclear how enrolled patients were treated for other comorbidities such as hyperten- sion, diabetes, and smoking, though that may have been mitigated by random- ization. T e trial also did not include anticoagulation for treatment of patients with atrial fbrillation. Nonetheless, the risk of recurrent stroke for patients with atrial fbrillation in this study was only marginally elevated compared to those who did not have atrial fbrillation. Summary and Implications: In patients with acute ischemic stroke, a medium dose of aspirin daily is efective at reducing mortality and the risk for recurrent ischemic stroke, though the absolute benefts are modest (6. A noncontrast head cT shows a small hypodensity in her lef internal capsule without signs of hemorrhage. Year Study Began: 1991 Year Study Published: 1997 Study Location: 467 hospitals in 36 countries. Who Was Excluded: Patients with small likelihood of worthwhile beneft (severe preexisting disability or symptoms likely to completely resolve within a few hours); patients with intracranial hemorrhage; patients who had condi- tions with clear indications or contraindications to aspirin or heparin. Patients with Acute Ischemic Stroke Randomized Aspirin Aspirin No + + Medium- Low- Aspirin Medium- Low- Aspirin Dose Dose or Dose Dose Heparin Heparin Heparin Heparin Heparin Figure 44. Endpoints: Primary outcomes: death from any cause within 14 days and death or dependency (defned as needing help from another person with daily activi- ties) at 6 months. Secondary outcomes: symptomatic intracranial hemorrhage within 14 days confrmed by cT, MrI, or autopsy; ischemic stroke within 14 days; major extracranial hemorrhage requiring transfusion or causing death within 14 days; major events within 14 days such as pulmonary embolism; death from any cause at 6 months. At 6 months the aspirin treatment arm had 14 fewer dead or dependent outcomes per 1,000 patients (see Table 44. Summary of Key outcomes at 14 Days Outcome Events within Heparin No Heparin Aspirin No 14 days Aspirin Total deaths 9. Summary of Key outcomes at 6 months Outcome Events Heparin No Heparin Aspirin No Aspirin at 6 months Fully recovered and independent 17. Summary and Implications: In patients with acute ischemic stroke, aspirin is an efective early treatment to prevent death and disability. Heparin, particu- larly medium-dose heparin, causes higher rates of hemorrhage that ofset any potential beneft. More research is needed to determine whether there may be a role for low-dose heparin, either with or without aspirin, for patients with acute ischemic stroke. He denies any weakness, clumsiness, sensory changes, chest pain, or shortness of breath. His brain MrI demonstrates an area of restricted difusion in his right occipital lobe without any evidence of hemorrhage. T is is particularly true for posterior circulation strokes, as they had high rates of hemorrhagic transformation. Daily aspirin was found to be benefcial for acute ischemic stroke, however, and should be instituted imme- diately. Whether there is a role for low dose heparin, such as is used for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis, requires further study. Who Was Excluded: Patients were excluded if they had any of the follow- ing: (1) peptic ulcer disease; (2) previous gastrointestinal bleeding; (3) hyper- sensitivity to aspirin or dipyridamole; (4) bleeding disorder; (5) any condition requiring continued use of aspirin or anticoagulants; or (6) any life-threatening condition. Study Intervention: Patients were randomized to receive either: (1) placebo twice daily; (2) aspirin 25 mg twice daily; (3) modifed-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily; or (4) aspirin 25 mg and extended-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily. Criticisms and Limitations: • T ere was no strategy in place to deal with patients who developed headache. However, this dose was employed because the investigators wanted a low dose of aspirin given the results of previous trials5,6 and 81 mg aspirin was not available in europe. Her extended cardiac monitoring revealed no evidence of paroxysmal atrial fbril- lation. She has no clinical history of heart failure and no history of hemorrhage or bleeding diathesis. She takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, a statin, thrice daily insulin, and topiramate for her headaches. Her exam is notable for mild hemiparesis of her right leg and she walks with a cane. An MrI of her brain reveals chronic microvascular disease and confrms her prior stroke. T is patient has a clear indication for an antiplatelet agent such as aspirin or dipyridamole and no compelling indication for anticoagulation. Moreover, if the dipyrid- amole were combined with aspirin in a single capsule (as is commonly done) and she stopped taking the combination medication due to her headaches, she would risk being completely without antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin and extended-release dipyridamole versus clopidogrel for recurrent stroke. Who Was Excluded: Patients with atrial fbrillation, cardioembolic stroke, or subarachnoid hemorrhage. Also excluded were patients who were not ambula- tory, had a modifed rankin Score >3 or lDl <100mg/dl. Study Intervention: eligible patients were randomly assigned to receive 80 mg atorvastatin per day or placebo. Follow-up visits were scheduled 1, 3, and 6 months afer enrollment and every 6 months thereafer. By 1 month into the trial, lDl in the atorvastatin group had fallen by 53% compared with no change in the placebo group (P < 0. Criticisms and Limitations: • T e investigators did not gather data on the level of disability arising from strokes in the respective groups. T is information is important as the most important efect of stroke on a population is the increased burden of disability as opposed to mortality. T is trial specifcally dealt with patients without atrial fbrillation and without a history of coronary artery disease. T ey found that patients already taking a statin who have an acute ischemic stroke have a lower poststroke mortality (at 90 days) and a reduced risk of deterioration during their hospitalization. T ere was an associated reduction in the lDl and total cholesterol levels in the treatment group versus the placebo group. He has no residual def- cits from his stroke and is independent in all his basic and instrumental activ- ities of daily living. What are the benefcial efects for this man of using statin therapy as a lipid- lowering agent? Atorvastatin was also associated with a 16% reduced risk of further ischemic stroke at the cost of a slightly elevated risk of hemorrhagic stroke. It would therefore be reasonable to recommend it to this gentleman as part of ongoing secondary prevention of further cerebrovascular events. Who Was Excluded: Patients with prosthetic heart valves, mitral stenosis, or other conditions such as recent pulmonary embolism that required anticoagu- lation, or contraindications to aspirin or warfarin. Patients with atrial brillation documented within 6 months of the trial Randomized Low-intensity, xed-dose Adjusted-dose warfarin warfarin plus aspirin Figure 47. A 1-year fol- low up period may not have been sufcient, and long-term safety could not be assessed. T e comparison of adjusted-dose warfarin was to a combination of medications uncommonly used (low-intensity warfarin therapy in addition to aspirin). Since she has done well so far on warfarin, it might be advisable to continue with the current regimen; however, if she feels strongly that she does not want to continue the frequent monitoring, it would also be reasonable to discuss with her the risks and benefts of the newer anticoagulants that do not require regular anticoagulation testing. Summary of evidence-based guideline update: prevention of stroke in nonvalvular atrial fbril- lation: report of the guideline Development Subcommitee of the American Academy of Neurology. Year Study Began: 2005 Year Study Published: 2009 Study Location: 951 clinical centers in 44 countries in Asia, europe, North America, and South America.
Prior to the transfusion of apheresis-derived 9 9 platelets order 20 mg celexa visa, the platelet count is 15 × 10 /L buy celexa 40mg with visa, and posttransfusion purchase celexa once a day, it is 23 × 10 /L generic celexa 40mg without a prescription. A similar increase in her platelet count was noted after a second unit was transfused. What is the interpretation of this result based on the response to platelets and the information provided to you in the original case scenario? Appropriate response at 1-h posttransfusion suggesting the cause is immune mediated B. Appropriate response at 1-h posttransfusion suggesting the cause is nonimmune mediated C. Inappropriate response at 1-h posttransfusion suggesting the cause is nonimmune mediated E. Other choices (Answers A, B, C, and D) are wrong based on the above calculation and explanation. The other choices (Answers A, B, D, and E) are incorrect based on the table above. A 32-year-old pregnant woman is being followed because she has an anti-c and the biological father of the child is known to be positive for the c antigen. An antibody titration study is performed today in the blood bank and the results are as follows: Dilution 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128 1:256 Score Titer Agglutination 4+ 3+ 2+ 2+ 1+ 1+ w+ 0? Given this information, what are the score and titer for this antibody titration study? Therefore, when maternal alloantibodies are detected during pregnancy, antibody titration studies are performed to determine the strength of the antibody. This information is used for determining the level of monitoring that is needed for adverse effects on the fetus. Serial dilutions of the patient serum that contains the antibody are tested against red cells that are positive for the antigen in question. The titer is the reciprocal of the highest dilution in which agglutination (not including weak reaction or reaction <1+) was observed. A score can also be calculated in which each level of agglutination is assigned a given value and the score is the sum of the values. The agglutination and score values are as follows: 4+ = 12, 3+ = 10, 2+ = 8, 1+ = 5). In the case of alloimmunization against an Rh antigen, generally pregnancies in which antibody titers are 8 or lower can be managed by serial monitoring of the maternal antibody titers. In addition, the results of the current specimen should be compared with prior specimens and a change in titer of 2 or more tubes or a change in score of 10 or more are considered signifcant. Answer: A—Using the above information: Correlating the agglutination to the scoring values: 4+ = 12, 3+ = 10, 2+ = 8, 2+ = 8, 1+ =5, 1+ = 5) Score = 12 + 10 + 8 + 8 +5 +5 = 48 Titer = reciprocal of the highest dilution that showed agglutination: dilution of 1:64—Titer 64. The other choices (Answers B, C, D, and E) are incorrect based on the above information and calculations. He states that over the past 24 h he has noticed bruising on his arms, bleeding from his gums when brushing his teeth this morning, and bleeding from his nose. Most patients with thrombocytopenia with no bleeding or only mild bleeding can be managed with observation alone. A platelet count > 50 9 × 10 /L is generally accepted as a threshold for satisfactory response. The dosage and frequency of maintenance therapy depends on the patient’s clinical status and laboratory parameters (platelet count, hemoglobin, and reticulocyte counts). If the patient does not respond, redosing is based on the hemoglobin level If hemoglobin < 8 g/dL, then alternative therapies should be considered (i. Thus, the patient needs to be monitored closely for signs, symptoms, and laboratory evidence of intravascular hemolysis in the healthcare setting for at least 8 h. Dipstick urinalysis to monitor hemoglobinuria and hematuria should be performed at baseline, at 2 h, at 4 h, and before the end of the monitoring period. Answer: E—Using the above information: Initial dose(g)6 5kg g/kg=3,250 µg Initialdose(µg)=65 kg × 50 µg/kg = 3250 µg 14. A 68-year-old man with multiple myeloma is preparing to undergo an autologous stem cell transplant. Per her obstetrics record, the patient is O Rh negative with anti-E (titer of 16) identifed at 28 weeks of gestation. Her current type and screen shows that she is O Rh negative and has anti-D and anti-E (titer of 16). The other choices (Answers B, C, D, and E) are incorrect based on the information above. Her current type and screen shows again that she is O Rh negative and has anti-D and anti-E (titer of 32). Therefore, the reconstituted whole blood for the exchange should be 2 × 240 = 480 mL. A 27 year-old female (blood type O Rh negative with negative antibody screen) is hospitalized with meningococcemia. Please answer Questions 22 and 23 based on the following scenario: An 80-lb woman who is known to have a rare red blood cell antigen phenotype presents for blood donation at her local blood center. Based upon her weight, what is the maximum amount of whole blood she can donate today? If the donor weighs less than 110 lbs, then the maximum allowable whole blood volume (including the amount of blood used for testing and discarded via the diversion pouch) is 10. Answer: A—This donor only weighs 80 lbs (∼36 kg); thus, the maximum amount of whole blood (including samples for testing) she can donate today is 36 × (10. If a donor weighs more than 110 lbs, she can donate a maximum of 500 + 50 mL whole blood, and most donors are able donate this volume at each donation. A unit is labeled as a “low-volume collection” when the amount collected into a 450 mL collection bag is between 300 and 404 mL, or when the amount collected into a 500 mL collection bag is between 333 and 449 mL, and the amount of anticoagulant in the collection bag is not adjusted. The blood center staff is able to remove the appropriate amount of anticoagulant from the phlebotomy bag for this donor. Based on the maximum amount of blood that this donor is able to donate, how much anticoagulant does the staff need to remove from the primary bag, if the blood center uses the standard 450mL phlebotomy bag? The following describes the steps involved in calculating the amount of anticoagulant required for low-volume whole blood units using the standard 450 mL phlebotomy bags. Step 1: Calculate the amount of blood that can be removed: Donor weight inlbs Volumetoberemoved (inmL) = (450 mL) 110 lbs Volumetoberemoved(in mL)=(450 mL)(Donorweightinlbs110 lbs) 20. Volume of anticoagulant toberemoved 63 mL Volume of anticoagulant required Volumeofanticoagulanttoberemoved=63 mL−Volumeofanti- coagulantrequired Answer: D—Since the facility only has standard 450 mL phlebotomy bags, the maximum amount 80 lbs of whole blood should be removed is (450 mL) = 327. He has multiple transfusions in the past (but none within the past 3 months), and his antibody panel currently shows that he is O Rh positive, and has anti-C, E, K, a a b Js , Fy , Jk , and s. If he receives simple transfusion (2 units), then what will his Hct and hemoglobin S (HgbS) likely be post transfusion? Simple transfusion may be able to achieve HgbS goal without a dramatic increase in iron storage B. Simple transfusion may be able to achieve HgbS goal without a dramatic increase in blood viscosity C. Simple transfusion may not be able to achieve HgbS goal without a dramatic increase in iron storage D. Simple transfusion may not be able to achieve HgbS goal without a dramatic increase in blood viscosity E. The other choices (Answers A, C, D, and E) are incorrect based on the formulas and information above. Based on your institutional protocol, the patient’s HgbS post-procedure should be less than 20% and Hct should be ∼27%–30%. She has history of bleeding with surgical procedures; thus, her coagulopathy should be corrected. Therefore, plasma is used to treat coagulopathy and/or bleeding in these patients. This is a large volume transfusion, and thus, the patient should be monitored closely for signs and symptoms of volume overload.
No discount celexa express, she is not eligible due to the following: she has been pregnant in the past 6 weeks; she is taking an antibiotic for treatment of an ear infection; she has had a needlestick injury 6 months ago; she had sexual relations with a man who has symptomatic hepatitis C less than 1 year ago E best celexa 20 mg. No purchase generic celexa on line, she is not eligible due to the following: she is 35 years old; she received an infuenza vaccination 4 months ago; she is taking metoprolol and lisinopril for blood pressure control; she has had a needlestick injury 6 months ago; she has been pregnant in the past 6 weeks; she is taking an antibiotic for treatment of an ear infection Concept: Potential donors may have multiple reasons to exclude them from donation for various lengths of time purchase generic celexa line. Along with improved screening tests, deferral policies have been very effective at reducing the risk of transfusion transmitted diseases in the blood supply. This is a donor safety issue and the 6 weeks allows the new mother’s body to heal properly, stay hydrated, and replenish their hemoglobin. Many new mothers may not meet the appropriate hemoglobin criteria nor will they likely be in good physical condition to donate within 6 weeks of delivery. A donor may donate 24 h after the last dose of an antibiotic course so long as they have no signs of infection (many prophylactic antibiotics are allowed, e. Other deferrals include the following: 12 months for a needlestick injury contaminated with untested blood, and 12 months for sexual relations with someone with symptomatic hepatitis C. For oral cephalosporin used for treatment of bacterial infection: defer 1 month after last dose and donor must be asymptomatic C. For sexual contact with individual with symptomatic hepatitis C: defer for 6 months after date of last sexual contact E. For infuenza vaccine: defer for 1 week from the date of vaccination Concept: Deferral periods are designed to provide the maximum risk reduction for recipients of blood transfusion. Some are based on knowledge of a specifc disease’s life cycle, while others are based on a “best guess. This deferral period allows for seroconversion and rise of disease markers to detectable levels in the event that the donor has been exposed to bloodborne diseases that are routinely tested for in blood donors (e. Pregnant women are ineligible to donate blood and must wait a minimum of 6 weeks after the conclusion of the pregnancy. Donors on antibiotics (Answer B) for treatment of an infection should be deferred for 1 day after the last dose and the donor must not have any signs or symptoms of an acute or chronic infection. This allows an appropriate time for seroconversion and allows the disease markers to be detected, similar to the rationale for the needlestick injury deferral. No deferral is required after receiving the infuenza vaccine (Answer E) as long as the donor is symptom-free. Neither the infuenza shot nor the intranasal form is a reason for blood donation deferral since there is no risk of transmitting the infuenza virus from the vaccines. Based on the information provided by the donor, when will she be eligible to donate whole blood again? One month from now; 12 months after sexual contact with a man with symptomatic hepatitis C D. BlooD Donation anD ColleCtion 87 Concept: When deciding the time frame of deferral, the longest disqualifer is the deciding factor and the deferrals are not additive. Answer: A—The donor will be eligible to donate again after the longest applicable deferral period has ended, which in this case will be 12 months after the needlestick injury (6 months from now). The other deferral periods that apply to this donor are 6 weeks after conclusion of her pregnancy, one day after completion of antibiotic treatment (Answer D), and 12 months after her sexual contact with a man with symptomatic hepatitis C (Answer C). She does not have a deferral after receiving the infuenza vaccine (Answer E) as long as the she is symptom-free. The collections staff calls you and reports that the donor is willing to undergo infectious disease testing at her primary care clinic if that would allow her to donate blood products. Explain to the donor that she is encouraged to undergo infectious disease testing as soon as possible and is welcome to come back and donate, providing her test results are negative. Explain to the donor that she is encouraged to undergo infectious disease testing at her primary care clinic; however, the results may not be accurate until after the deferral period is over and she remains ineligible to donate until the deferral period ends. Explain to the donor that she is encouraged to undergo infectious disease testing in 3 months, and she can come back to donate right after that, providing that her test results are negative. Explain to the donor that she is encouraged to undergo infectious disease testing in 6 weeks, and she can come back to donate in 2 months, providing that her test results are negative. Tell the donor to postpone infectious disease testing and to come back and donate after her deferral period ends. The blood center will test for infectious diseases at that time point and will notify her of any issues. Concept: The reason for many deferrals within the donor history questionnaire is due to extended window periods or because no good screening test exists for the particular disease. Answer: B—Certain deferral periods are in place with the intent to avoid window period false negatives for infectious bloodborne diseases. The window period is the time from potential exposure to the time of disease detection. This is the timeframe that donor may not have seroconverted or have serologic markers at detectable levels. A deferral period of 12 months is often chosen when a donor may have been exposed to infectious bloodborne diseases to safely ensure all window periods are met. If this donor undergoes infectious disease testing after the deferral period is over (12 months after the needlestick injury and six months from now), the test results should be accurate. Donors are not encouraged to donate blood products for verifcation of infectious disease status. If the donor has infectious disease risk factors, they should be encouraged to undergo earlier testing so that in the event of any positive results, they may receive earlier treatment. All the other choices (Answers A, C, D, and E) are incorrect based on this donor’s deferral criteria and for the reasons explained above. End of Case Please answer Questions 32–35 in response to the following case scenario: An allogeneic male donor presents for apheresis platelet collection. Inspection of his antecubital areas reveals no evidence of needle tracks, rashes, or other pathology. BlooD Donation anD ColleCtion The phlebotomist identifes an appropriate venipuncture site and scrubs the area thoroughly with disinfec- tant. A blood sample for platelet count is obtained and the donor is placed on the apheresis instrument. The sample diversion pouch flls with blood and the donor’s blood volume circulates throughout the instrument. Midway through the procedure, the donor experiences perioral tingling, nausea, and muscle cramping. The antecubital skin plug is drawn into the sample diversion pouch, to prevent bacterial contamination of the collected product B. The blood in the sample diversion pouch is added to the collected product, for transfusion D. The blood in the sample diversion pouch is stored only for use in adverse event investigation E. The blood in the sample diversion pouch is not used for any purpose and is simply discarded Concept: During blood donation, the frst 40–50 mL of blood goes into what is called a diversion pouch. This has proven to be highly effective in reducing bacterial contamination of blood products. Answer: A—The phlebotomist thoroughly disinfects the donor’s antecubital areas to prevent skin contaminant microorganisms (usually gram positive cocci such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus) from entering the collected blood product after venipuncture. However, the needle also comes into contact with a skin plug underneath the donor’s skin during venipuncture. This skin plug is not accessible to the arm scrub and may carry skin fora, which could contaminate the collected blood product unless it is diverted into another bag with the frst 40–50 mL of the initial blood draw. Integration of this method has signifcantly reduced the risk of bacterial contamination. The greatest reduction in rate of bacterial contamination is seen with platelet products, which are prone to contamination as they are stored at room temperature in which Gram positive cocci grow easily. Samples for infectious disease testing are also drawn from the sample diversion pouch, but it is not used in adverse event testing or for testing the donor’s hemoglobin level (Answers B and D), nor is it simply discarded without any further use (Answer E). A blood sample should be collected 2 weeks prior to each plateletpheresis procedure to determine the donor’s platelet count B. The predonation platelet count result is not necessary to qualify the donor for a same day platelet apheresis donation C. Platelet count results performed prior to or after the procedure may not be used to qualify the donor for the next procedure D. Based on this donor’s predonation platelet count, he is not eligible to donate platelets E.
They may also have short-term memory loss that requires written instructions and frequent verbal cueing and reinforcement celexa 20mg lowest price. Watch for signs and symptoms of the Uhthoff phenomenon which typically involves a transient (<24 h) worsening of neurological symptoms order celexa 40 mg overnight delivery, most commonly order celexa in india, visual impairment associated with exercise and elevation of body temperature cheap 20 mg celexa overnight delivery. Symptoms can be minimized by using cooling strategies and adjusting exercise time and intensity. O N L I N E R E S O U R C E S National Center on Health, Physical Activity and Disability: http://www. Osteoporosis affects almost one out of every two women at some point in their lives. Although osteoporosis is thought of primarily as a disease of women, prevalence rates in men can be as high as 15% (147). More than 54 million individuals in the United States have osteoporosis or low bone density (198). Hip fractures, in particular, are associated with increased risk of disability and death. There is an estimated fivefold increase in all-cause mortality in the 3 mo following a hip fracture in older adults (107). Recent evidence indicates that exercise can delay the onset of osteoporosis and reduce fracture risk (26,148,228). The benefits of exercise on bone health occur in both children and adults and are due primarily to increases in bone density, volume, and strength and to a parallel increase in muscle strength (6,26,148,228). Exercise also improves balance in both young and older populations, which can reduce falls and subsequent osteoporotic fracture risk (40,141). Thus, exercise can generally be regarded as the primary nonpharmacological treatment for prevention of osteoporosis. Nevertheless, many studies have concluded that large randomized controlled trials are still needed in both women and men to determine optimal Ex R for preventing bothx osteoporosis and fracture (26,148,228). Exercise Testing In general, when an exercise test is clinically indicated for those with osteoporosis, normal testing procedures should be followed (see Chapter 5). However, when exercise tests are performed in individuals with osteoporosis, the following issues should be considered: Use of cycle leg ergometry as an alternative to treadmill exercise testing to assess cardiorespiratory function may be indicated in patients with severe vertebral osteoporosis for whom walking is painful or risky. Multiple vertebral compression fractures leading to a loss of height and spinal deformation can compromise ventilatory capacity and result in a forward shift in the center of gravity. Maximal muscle strength testing may be contraindicated in patients with severe osteoporosis, although there are no established guidelines for contraindications for maximal muscle strength testing. Balance testing or fall risk assessment should be considered in patients with osteoporosis or low bone density. Available balance assessments include the four-stage balance test (45) and the Falls Efficacy Scale (288). Exercise Prescription Currently, little evidence exists regarding the optimal exercise regime for individuals with or at risk for osteoporosis. In general, weight-bearing aerobic exercise in combination with some form of high-impact, high-velocity, high intensity resistance training is considered the best choice for either population (6,26,99,228). However, the magnitude of bone loading force generally increases in parallel with exercise intensity quantified by conventional methods (e. Weight-bearing aerobic and high-velocity resistance training modes are recommended. Proper form and alignment are more important than intensity especially for those with a history of fractures (99). There are currently no established guidelines regarding contraindications to exercise for individuals with osteoporosis. The general recommendation is to prescribe moderate intensity weight-bearing exercise that does not cause or exacerbate pain. Exercises that involve explosive movements or high-impact loading should be avoided. Primary considerations should be exercises that strengthen the quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteal and trunk muscles because these are the muscles primarily responsible for balance (40). The recommendations in this section are generalized for exercise in patients with, or at risk for, osteoporosis. O N L I N E R E S O U R C E S American College of Sports Medicine Position Stand on Osteoporosis: http://www. Aging, autoimmune responses, and mitochondrial dysfunction may also contribute to the disease process (24,66,87,233). Resting tremors are often evident but can be suppressed by voluntary activity, sleep, and complete relaxation of axial muscles. This increases the individual’s perception of effort on movement and may be related to feelings of fatigue, especially postexercise fatigue. Bradykinesia and akinesia are characterized by a reduction or inability to initiate and perform purposeful movements. Other problems including excessive salivation or drooling; soft, slurred speech; and small handwriting also impact quality of life. Despite its significant benefit, the effectiveness is limited to an average of approximately 10 yr. Long-term use is associated with motor complications including motor fluctuations and dyskinesias in about 50% of patients within 5 yr (223,279). Other side effects include nausea, sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and psychiatric symptoms (especially hallucinations). Levodopa is now always combined with Carbidopa to prevent systemic adverse effects (237). Other adjunctive drug groups are catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors, monoamine oxidase B inhibitors, amantadine, anticholinergics, and dopamine agonists. For this reason, the exercise professional is advised to become familiar with these medications. Static and dynamic balance evaluation and physical limitations of the individual should be used in making decisions regarding testing modes for test validity and safety. Clinical balance tests include the Functional Reach test (71), tandem stance (218), single limb stance (275), and pull tests (189,218,275). Gait observation can be done during the 10-m walk test at a comfortable walking speed (155,255). Use of a cycle leg ergometer alone or combined with arm ergometry may be more suitable for individuals with severe gait and balance impairment or with a history of falls (233). For an individual who is deconditioned, demonstrates lower extremity weakness, or has a history of falling, care and precautions should be taken, especially at the final stages of the treadmill protocol when fatigue occurs and the individual’s walking may deteriorate. A gait belt should be worn, and a technician should stand by close to the subject to guard during the treadmill test. Antiparkinsonian medication intake should be noted prior to performing the exercise test. Clinicians should consult with a neurologist prior to performing the exercise test in these patients. During resistance training, emphasize extensor muscles of the trunk and hip to prevent faulty posture. Static, dynamic, and balance training during functional activities should be included. Spinal mobility and axial rotation exercises are recommended for all severity stages (255). Neck flexibility exercises should be emphasized because neck rigidity is correlated with posture, gait, balance, and functional mobility (92). Levodopa/Carbidopa may produce exercise bradycardia and transient peak dose tachycardia and dyskinesia. Caution should be used in testing and training an individual who has had a recent change in medications because the response may be unpredictable (233). Incorporate and emphasize fall prevention/reduction and education into the exercise program. Instruction on how to break falls should be given and practiced to prevent serious injuries. Lesions in the cervical (C) region typically result in tetraplegia or tetraparesis (respectively, complete or incomplete loss of function below the C level of lesion), whereas lesions in the thoracic (T), lumbar (L), and sacral (S) regions lead to paraplegia or paraparesis (respectively, complete or incomplete loss of function below the T, L, or S level of lesion). T6–L2 have respiratory and motor control that depends on the functional capacity of the abdominal muscles (i.